In Matthew 1:20 should we read Μαριαμ or Μαριαν? Is it possible to explain the form with ν as an assimilation to the declension of the genitive in 1:18? NA27 records inconsistency of spelling for the name of Mary Magdalene between 27:56 and 27:61/28:1. Luke 1:41, contrasted with Luke 1:30, 34, 38, 39, 46, etc. allows us to assume that the first declension genitive can be used suppletively alongside the Semitic nominative and accusative (Luke 2:16). What should we make of the first declension variant in Luke 2:19?
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Addition: I suppose that one of the problems that lies hidden in the apparatus of a text like Luke 2:19 is that D tends to generalize Μαρια anyway. It takes knowledge of this to note that what we have in that verse is the coming together of witnesses that usually do not have the first declension spelling with a witness that does. D, of course, has its own spelling habits.
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