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A forum for people with knowledge of the Bible in its original languages to discuss its manuscripts and textual history from the perspective of historic evangelical theology.
This is not the first blog by this person, I think.
ReplyDeletehttp://copticjohn.blogspot.com/
I think that I have seen one other bolg established seemingly by the same person or someone with similar ideas. As per the person quote of Leyton {sic!}, I do not know from where it comes.
PJW: In what way is the indefinite required in John 1:1? Although I am not about to join the Watchtower Bible and Tract Society, it does seem that the Coptic supports their bizarre reading albeit out-of-context. I would see this perhaps as a reading against Arianism contemporary with the Coptic translation. I would think that the definite article would make sense if the intended reading was "The word was (the Hebrew) God."
Here is another:
ReplyDeletehttp://nwtandcoptic.blogspot.com/