A forum for people with knowledge of the Bible in its original languages to discuss its manuscripts and textual history from the perspective of historic evangelical theology.
A blog on the Coptic Bible has been started by someone who sees themselves as a student of the subject. To judge by the links and the interest in the Coptic indefinite article in John 1:1 (which is necessary) there appear to be some JW sympathies.
This is not the first blog by this person, I think.
http://copticjohn.blogspot.com/
I think that I have seen one other bolg established seemingly by the same person or someone with similar ideas. As per the person quote of Leyton {sic!}, I do not know from where it comes.
PJW: In what way is the indefinite required in John 1:1? Although I am not about to join the Watchtower Bible and Tract Society, it does seem that the Coptic supports their bizarre reading albeit out-of-context. I would see this perhaps as a reading against Arianism contemporary with the Coptic translation. I would think that the definite article would make sense if the intended reading was "The word was (the Hebrew) God."
This is not the first blog by this person, I think.
ReplyDeletehttp://copticjohn.blogspot.com/
I think that I have seen one other bolg established seemingly by the same person or someone with similar ideas. As per the person quote of Leyton {sic!}, I do not know from where it comes.
PJW: In what way is the indefinite required in John 1:1? Although I am not about to join the Watchtower Bible and Tract Society, it does seem that the Coptic supports their bizarre reading albeit out-of-context. I would see this perhaps as a reading against Arianism contemporary with the Coptic translation. I would think that the definite article would make sense if the intended reading was "The word was (the Hebrew) God."
Here is another:
ReplyDeletehttp://nwtandcoptic.blogspot.com/