tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-17859011.post116791115055127922..comments2024-03-17T17:46:24.354+00:00Comments on Evangelical Textual Criticism: James 4:5 and punctuationP.J. Williamshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/04388225485348300613noreply@blogger.comBlogger5125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-17859011.post-1168036099682208602007-01-05T22:28:00.000+00:002007-01-05T22:28:00.000+00:00The view that Jas 4:5 is to be punctuated as two s...The view that Jas 4:5 is to be punctuated as two sentences is also advocated by D Edmond Hiebert (The Epistle of James, Moody Press, 1979). He also cites (p. 254) several other private translations (including JB Phillips) as well as ASV (= RV). On p. 256 he then goes on to differ with ASV (and Phillips) by taking the second sentence as a statement (as per the comments above).<BR/><BR/>If UBS4 does not list the verse in the punctuation apparatus (discourse segmentation apparatus?) this is presumably because their information is collected from a select range of editions and modern versions, none of which happen to represent any other view than that a direct quote is involved. I see that Jas 4:5 is also listed in their Index of Allusions and Verbal Parallels (to Ex 20:5), though not of course in their Index of Quotations.<BR/><BR/>Tony PopeAnonymousnoreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-17859011.post-1168003762268843222007-01-05T13:29:00.000+00:002007-01-05T13:29:00.000+00:00> Why does the second half of the verse need to be...> Why does the second half of the verse need to be a question...?<BR/><BR/>It doesn't. I responded from memory yesterday. I just got back to my study and looked it over again. My conclusion was slightly different than I recounted. In English, it would read something like this: <BR/><BR/>"Do you think Scripture speaks without reason? The spirit he caused to live in us tends toward envy, but he gives us more grace."<BR/><BR/>So, question + statement, with the added feature of breaking the sentence at 6b rather than at 5. (If v 5b were taken as a question, it would be a rhetorical question and imply much the same thing since a negative answer would seem to be implied form the context.)<BR/><BR/>RDRod Deckerhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/17521333817382327983noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-17859011.post-1167935367633992162007-01-04T18:29:00.000+00:002007-01-04T18:29:00.000+00:00Just FYI:The RP Byztxt 2005 punctuates the first h...Just FYI:<BR/><BR/>The RP Byztxt 2005 punctuates the first half as a question (as per RV and Decker) and the last half as a statement (as per Rowe).Anonymousnoreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-17859011.post-1167920865966539952007-01-04T14:27:00.000+00:002007-01-04T14:27:00.000+00:00Why does the second half of the verse need to be a...Why does the second half of the verse need to be a question in the Tregelles/RV/Decker puncuation?Eric Rowehttps://www.blogger.com/profile/00559055709208918638noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-17859011.post-1167912980210731802007-01-04T12:16:00.000+00:002007-01-04T12:16:00.000+00:00Interesting. Thanks. My forthcoming Koine Greek Re...Interesting. Thanks. My forthcoming Koine Greek Reader gives the same punctuation--I didn't know that it had been previously proposed in Tregelles or RV. It solves the problem of attempting to identify where "Scripture" makes such a statement and fits well in the context.<BR/><BR/>Rod DeckerAnonymousnoreply@blogger.com